this post was submitted on 14 Jan 2024
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We are friends with a 53 year old widow, she is physically unremarkable, chubby, has kids in college. She has sex with multiple guys a week and details her adventures to my wife over text. These guys range from 25 to 44 yrs old. Women will always get laid more than men. If they want it, they can have it.
Yeah I’m a 29 year old woman and there’s a woman in her 50s that I’ve been making out with. It’s kinda weird that her kids are my age, but she’s hot af so… and yeah she’s chubby, but it works for her.
If we discount homosexual relationships (since the conversation focuses on heterosexuals), for a woman to have sex, there needs to be a man to have sex with her, and vice versa, so men and women should get laid equally.
Uh no. It's not 1-1, it's 1-to-many.
Due to Fisher's Principle, we know that there's roughly as many women as men. So why don't you go and take a population of 5 men and 5 women, and show how they can be partnered up in such a way that each woman is on average connected to more men than vice versa. You'll quickly find it impossible, and that's because it is mathematically impossible.
Let's go through this step by step. Each woman in your model, has slept with 3 men, men 1-3. This makes the female average 3. Men 1 - 3 have slept with all 5 women each. So 15 sex partners, divided by 5 men, makes 3 sex partners for each man on average. Average for both groups are equal. Care to try again?
This silly train of thought simply ignores that not all men (and women) are of equal value or attraction. In this example, chances are the most attractive man gets more than his statistic average, with the least attractive man getting way less or even nothing.
True, but does not address the thesis being discussed, which is that heterosexual women have more sex than heterosexual men.