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Russell Brand allegations question from non American (www.theguardian.com)

submitted 1 year ago by [email protected] to c/[email protected]

35 comments fedilink hide all child comments

I was reading about the allegations against Russell Brand and couldn't help but wonder how it works legally that his revenue can be blocked based on allegations and before any juridical ruling.

Don't get me wrong I don't know much about the guy and what he did or didn't do and agree that anyone should be punished according to their crimes.

But how is this possible with the principal of innocent until proven guilty? I'd be happy if someone could explain me.

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[–] [email protected] 11 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago) (1 children)

You can sue anybody for anything. So sure, do they have actionable grounds? No.

In private commerce there is no compunction for people to do business with you.

It becomes different if we talk about utilities, power water internet.

[–] [email protected] 5 points 1 year ago (1 children)

Ok I see

[–] [email protected] 4 points 1 year ago

Let's do a fun thought experiment.

Let's say I open a gas station chain called " fuck Ted ".

If anybody with Ted on their credit card tried to fill up the tank it would just deny it. They go inside to talk to the cashier, and they saw the name was Ted they would say fuck you Ted and refuse to sell them anything.

A real fuck you in particular contender.

I think this would be a totally legal business. It's not discriminating any protected class. Sucks to be Ted