this post was submitted on 04 May 2024
226 points (94.8% liked)

Languages and Linguistics | Polyglots, Language Learners and Linguists!

590 readers
1 users here now

A community for languages, linguistics and people interested in both!

founded 1 year ago
MODERATORS
 
you are viewing a single comment's thread
view the rest of the comments
[–] [email protected] 3 points 6 months ago (2 children)

Umm... these aren't homonyms in English πŸ™‚.

They are heteronyms, which means same spelling but pronounced differently.

[–] [email protected] 2 points 6 months ago* (last edited 6 months ago) (1 children)

~~In some cases also can classify as homophones.~~

Nope, it's bull, homophones and heteronyms go to different bars.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 6 months ago (1 children)

Then they wouldn't be heteronyms.

If by "cases" you mean accent, then that's certainly a possibility.

[–] [email protected] 2 points 6 months ago

I Misunderstood what heteronyms where supposed to be.

Yep, pretty much opposite of what homophones are.

[–] [email protected] 2 points 6 months ago (2 children)

Well some of them are, like Polish and polish. I agree that different pronounciation is pretty exclusive, though.

[–] [email protected] 3 points 6 months ago

I’m pretty sure they’re all heteronyms in spoken English and make sense only if you use two pronunciations of the duplicated word.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 6 months ago

In my accent Polish/polish are pronounced differently. In what accent are they the same?