this post was submitted on 21 Sep 2024
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[–] [email protected] 1 points 2 months ago (1 children)

What a bad translation, almost like it was deliberately translated badly. "Thigh fall away," lmfao what nonsense. Btw in the quoted text below, when they say "impure," "impurity," they mean pregnancy.

https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Numbers%205%3A11-31&version=NIV

‘If a man’s wife goes astray and is unfaithful to him 13 so that another man has sexual relations with her, and this is hidden from her husband and her impurity is undetected (since there is no witness against her and she has not been caught in the act), 14 and if feelings of jealousy come over her husband and he suspects his wife and she is impure—or if he is jealous and suspects her even though she is not impure— 15 then he is to take his wife to the priest.

Then the priest shall put the woman under oath and say to her, “If no other man has had sexual relations with you and you have not gone astray and become impure while married to your husband, may this bitter water that brings a curse not harm you. 20 But if you have gone astray while married to your husband and you have made yourself impure by having sexual relations with a man other than your husband”— 21 here the priest is to put the woman under this curse—“may the Lord cause you to become a curse[b] among your people when he makes your womb miscarry and your abdomen swell.

22 May this water that brings a curse enter your body so that your abdomen swells or your womb miscarries.”

“‘Then the woman is to say, “Amen. So be it.”

If she has made herself impure and been unfaithful to her husband, this will be the result: When she is made to drink the water that brings a curse and causes bitter suffering, it will enter her, her abdomen will swell and her womb will miscarry, and she will become a curse. 28 If, however, the woman has not made herself impure, but is clean, she will be cleared of guilt and will be able to have children.

For the last 2 points - so you admit killing your own kid for God is seen as a virtue in the Bible, so much so that the 2 most important sons, Abraham and Jesus, both go through an event involving a parent killing them. And then there's literally dozens of events in tbe Bible of God killing kids. God loves child murder.

[–] [email protected] 0 points 2 months ago* (last edited 2 months ago) (1 children)

I'm sorry... Am I reading this correctly?

Did you just say the ESV was a bad translation and just cite the... NIV?????

Either you are really stupid or you HAVE to be a troll. If it's the former, the NIV is notoriously a bad translation, with it's main aim being to simplify the text with the translator's own interpretation. The benefit is that it's easier to read, but that's it. The NIV is the only translation which uses the term miscarry. Even the NRSV, a secular translation, says

Let the priest make the woman take the oath of the curse and say to the woman—“the Lord make you an execration and an oath among your people, when the Lord makes your uterus drop, your womb discharge;

"thigh" is a euphemism for womb. That's well known. So "womb" is a valid translation even though literally it says "thigh". But it's still clearly talking about a non pregnant woman becoming infertile. And the fact that the only thing you can use to justify your point is the NIV translation of it which shows you have no point at all

[21] וְהִשְׁבִּ֨יעַ הַכֹּהֵ֥ן אֶֽת־הָֽאִשָּׁה֮ בִּשְׁבֻעַ֣ת הָאָלָה֒ וְאָמַ֤ר הַכֹּהֵן֙ לָֽאִשָּׁ֔ה יִתֵּ֨ן יְהוָ֥ה אוֹתָ֛ךְ לְאָלָ֥ה וְלִשְׁבֻעָ֖ה בְּת֣וֹךְ עַמֵּ֑ךְ בְּתֵ֨ת יְהוָ֤ה אֶת־יְרֵכֵךְ֙ נֹפֶ֔לֶת וְאֶת־בִּטְנֵ֖ךְ צָבָֽה׃

Still nothing here implying the miscarriage, and this is the Westminster Leningrad Codex. Is the Hebrew a bad translation, too? 🤣

For your last "rebuttal", you forgot again that Jesus is God - He sacrificed Himself for all of humanity. Abraham was following God and didn't sacrifice his son. The point was his loyalty- not the child sacrifice. Nothing's virtuous about it.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 2 months ago (1 children)

Why are they talking about a woman's womb at all unless they think she is pregnant? What does the womb "discharge?" Where does it say she is NOT pregnant? Why is pregnancy NOT a concern if she was laying with another man as the passage discusses?

I think this translation is valid. That you have to explain that "thigh falling," means "womb discharge," shows that your translation is a bad one. And a womb discharge is clearly another way of saying miscarriage.

[–] [email protected] 0 points 2 months ago (1 children)

Women have wombs when they're not pregnant? Ever heard of a period? Heavy periods? People would have been seen unclean in that society as well if they had constant periods and would have been infertile.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 2 months ago* (last edited 2 months ago) (1 children)

A period being induced when a woman is pregnant is another name for a miscarriage. Thank you for proving my point. If they are inducing a period with the bitter water, that's to cause a miscarriage.

The passage isn't about periods. There are indeed biblical passages about menstruation, but this isn't one. This passage is about a woman sleeping with a man who isn't their partner. So again, what are they making the womb "discharge" after this suspected infidelity?

[–] [email protected] -2 points 2 months ago* (last edited 2 months ago)

But the passage doesn't say she's pregnant. You don't always get pregnant after the first time you sleep with someone 🤦

Interlinear verse, if that helps

https://scholarsgateway.com/parse/%D7%A0%D6%B9%D7%A4%D6%B6%D7%9C%D6%B6%D7%AA

No mention of miscarriage.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Heavy_menstrual_bleeding

A medical condition which matches this, also appears in Mark 5:25–34