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Has someone written a proof of an empty Cartesian product of non-empty sets in ZF¬C? (lemmy.sdf.org)

submitted 1 year ago by [email protected] to c/[email protected]

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Paul Cohen I understand constructed such a set of axioms, which logically imply the existence of an evil set family like that. Constructive is of course preferred for extra WTF.

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[–] [email protected] 1 points 1 year ago

Ah okay, I misunderstood. Am I still right to understand that there would have to be a product that produces the empty function on the union of sets in the family (hopefully I got that right this time)?

Thanks for the answers, by the way.

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