this post was submitted on 04 Jul 2024
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US Authoritarianism
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Again- If John 3:16 applies to everyone, so does John 3:18
If John 3:18 doesn't apply to everyone, neither does John 3:16.
There is no rational alternative. Telling me I'm trying to misconstrue everything doesn't change that point. Either both are universal or neither are universal.
Why would you think there is any kind of difference between them? All of John 3:1-21 is a single conversation about a single topic.
I don't think there is a difference.
I think they both apply universally.
You refuse to say whether or not 3:16 applies universally, you only claim 3:18 does not. All you have to do is say whether or not 3:16 is universal and you refuse to do it.
I see. I am talking about the conversation as a whole, since I dislike taking verses out of context.
The underlying topic is universal: Righteousness and who gains eternal life at the Resurrection. Jesus teaching is entirely centered around this. So in a way, it’s all universal.
But there’s an extra layer to the entire conversation: acceptance of Jesus as the Messiah. So the entire conversation is filled with scathing barbs aimed at Israel, and Nicodemus as a representative of Israel. 18 contains one of these barbs. Does this help?