This only produces a paradox if you fall for the usual fallacy that "at random" necessarily means "with uniform probability".

For example, I would pick an answer at random by rolling a fair cubic die and picking a) if it rolls a 1, b) on a 2, d) on a 3 or c) otherwise so for me the answer is c) 50%.

However, as it specifies that you are to pick at random the existence, uniqueness and value of the correct answer depends on the specific distribution you choose.

It's annoying that 25% appears twice. How about these answers:

a) 100%

b) 75%

c) 50%

d) 0%

100 **** percent, i'm all in!

I argue it's still 25%, because the answer is either a,b,c, or d, you can only choose 1, regardless of the possible answer having two slots.

Since two of them are the same, you have a 50% chance of picking something that is 33% of the possible answers. The other two, you have 25% chance of picking something that us 33% of the possible answers.

So 50%33% + 2 (33%*25%)= 33%

So your chances of being right is 33% cause there is effectively 3 choices.

There is absolutely no way it is 60%. Because you can never have 60% chances of picking anything particular when there are only 4 choices. Knowing this, the answer is either 25% or 50%. Two effective choices, so the answer is C, 50%.

Ahhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhh

60%

B) 60% because I'm generally very lucky.

Can I take a 50/50 joker first?

Yes

Selecting not at random, A xor D must be correct, because the answer key can only have one correct answer so even duplicate right answers must also be wrong.