this post was submitted on 12 Aug 2023
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MeanwhileOnGrad

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[–] [email protected] 4 points 1 year ago (9 children)

Taken from Wikipedia:

In 1948, the United Nations Genocide Convention defined genocide as any of five "acts committed with intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial or religious group." These five acts were: killing members of the group, causing them serious bodily or mental harm, imposing living conditions intended to destroy the group, preventing births, and forcibly transferring children out of the group.

So, while there may be debate on whether the Holdomor technically meets the definition of a genocide, it still constitutes mass murder.

[–] [email protected] -3 points 1 year ago (8 children)

That is not necessarily true because it is not easy to establish intent. As far as I know there is not a clear idea on even the numbers, only estimates that have been quite far apart. I do not think there is adequate grounds to conclude that it was done with intent, nor to rule it out, hence why it is under debate.

[–] [email protected] 2 points 1 year ago (5 children)

Yeah, but man made famines still aren't okay, even if you don't intent to destroy a people.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 1 year ago (2 children)

Would you consider the frequent man-made famines in ireland in the 19th century, including the very famous great famine, an example of 'genocide' or mass murder?

[–] [email protected] 4 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago)

Yes? Especially for the genocide part.

[–] [email protected] 3 points 1 year ago

Yes, that is a genocide.

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